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I'm trying to make sure I'm correctly updating my client application with the latest scope setup when the application is updated. I have a xamarin app on android using an sqlite database. On the server side, an IIS web service .net core application. Everything works fine SO FAR, but I wanted to make sure this is a recommended way to sync my clients and get them up to date. The method I'm using - -each time I need to update my EF model, I publish a new scope setup on the web service using the names "v1","v2", etc. *Each time the android application starts to sync- This works, but I'm not sure what issues this will cause if any. I'm not totally understanding on how I'm supposed to provision the clients when I need to change the database so this is what I came up with. Aaron |
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Replies: 2 comments 7 replies
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For clients that are updating their local database using EF migrations, you know that they should use another scope.
Just after the EF Migrations, you already know that
IF exists, I guess you are good to make a sync. Otherwise:
See https://dotmimsync.readthedocs.io/Provision.html#client-1
Make sense ? |
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If I look at the link to the docs, it says- In my case, I don't mind if the client gets all rows again- do I actually need to do the shadowScope part? And If I do not do the ShadowScope, will any updated rows still sync to the server? Aaron |
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For clients that are updating their local database using EF migrations, you know that they should use another scope.
So far, for these clients:
EF
migrations update the tables on the client to the latest version when the latest app is starting.Just after the EF Migrations, you already know that
V2
scope is not existing, as you just made the EF Migrations.Of course, you can check it by getting all scopes:
localOrchestrator
instance gets all scopes and see if a "V2
" if existsIF exists, I guess you are good to make a sync.
Otherwise:
remoteOrchestrator
gets the scope information for "V2" from server sidelocalOrchestrator
callProvisionAsync
using the remote scope retrieved o…